Microbiology test questions third section (micrl)

 

1.       0.1 ml. are transferred from a suspension containing 10 ml. of E. coli at

9

10 (ten to the ninth power) bacteria

per ml. into 0.9 ml. sterile medium. The second culture contains________ bacteria per ml. a.one million b.ten million c.100 million d.one billion e.none of these

 

C

 

2.       Based on a counting chamber estimate, you dilute a culture so as to deposit 200 bacteria onto a spread plate, but in the morning, you only count 50 colonies, the % viability is a.100 b.50 c.10 d.5 e.none of these

 

e

 

3.       You count 100 bacteria in 10 squares of a counting chamber. Your total bacterial count is _______ per ml. a.20 million b.200 million c.2 billion d.20 billion e.none of these

 

b

 

4.       The first edition of Bergey’s Manual was published in about a.1800 b.1850 c.1900 d.1920 e.1950

 

d

 

5.       Another name for cyanobacteria is a.myxobacteria b.sphaerotilus c.cyanophyta d.blue—green algae e.more than one of these

 

e

 

6.       To transfer 0.2 ml. of liquid, a ___ml. pipet should be used. a.0.1 twice b.0.5 c.1.0 d.2.0 e.more than one of these would be equally useful

 

b

 

7.       A _____ml. pipet would be more accurate for transferring 5.0 ml. of liquid. a.5.0 measuring b.5.0 serological

 

a

 

8.       0.2 ml. is spread onto a plate and gives rise to 100 colonies. The viable count per ml. of this suspension is a.100 b200 c.300 d.400 e.none of these

 

e

 

9.       Which was thought to be critical for the initial generation of Earth’s oxidizing atmosphere? a.bacterial photosynthesis b.anoxygenic photosynthesis c.cyanobacteria d.green plants e.none of these

 

C

 

10.     Which is probably involved in nitrogen fixation? a.trichome b.hormogonia c.heterocyst d.akinete e.none of these

 

C

 

11.     ________ can fix molecular nitrogen. a.cyanobacteria b.Rhizobium c.Azotobacter d.two of these e.all of these

 

e

 

12.  Salmonella only causes intestinal infections. a.true b.false

 

b

 

13.     E. coli is the primary inhabitant of the human large intestine. a.true b.false

 

b

14.  Rickettsias a.fix nitrogen b.cause syphilis c.have leaky membranes d.move by “gliding” e.none of these

 

C

 

15.     __________ don’t have cell walls. a.spirochetes b.vibrios c.Pseudomonads d.mycoplasmas e.none of these

 

d

 

16.  “Pyogenic” means a.fever-provoking b.pus-causing c.non—motile d.photosynthetic e.more than one of these

 

b

 

17.     ________ are acid-fast. a.E. coli b.Mycobacteria c.cyanobacteria d.Staphylococci e.all of these

 

b

 

 

18.  Tuberculosis, because of antibiotics, is currently almost non-existent on this planet. a.true b.false

 

b

 

19.     All purple bacteria are purple. a.true b.false

 

b

 

20.  Chemolithotrophs have a major significance in that they cause numerous diseases. a.true b.false

 

b

 

21.     Give causative agents for:

Leptospiros is

Leprosy

Legionnaire’s disease

Impetigo

Histoplasmosis

 

Leptospira sp. ;M. leprae;L.pneumophila;S . aureus&S . pyogenes micrL3 Q# 21 E

 

22.     The _______ is responsible for specific adsorption of a bacteriophage to a bacterium. a.capsid b.pins c.contractile sheath d.base plate e.none of these

e

 

23.    A (n) -containing virus would be more likely to contain reverse

transcriptase. a.capsid b.DNA c.RNA d.protein e.none of these would be more likely than another

          C

 

24.  Restriction endonucleases are produced by a.bacteria b.viruses c.both bacteria and viruses

          C

 

25.     A _____ virus can produce a prophage a.lytic b.lysogenic c,either lytic or lysogenic

 

b

 

26.     Viral-mediated transfer of bacterial DNA a.does not occur b.is transformation c.is conjugation d.is transduction e.none of these

 

d

 

27.     A Bam H1 cleavage site exists within the “Tet” gene of pBR 322. Following cloning and transformation, recombinants will be a.ampicillin sensitive b.tetracycline sensitive c.chloramphenicol resistant d.tetracycline resistant e.none of these

 

b

 

28.     One of the advantages to working with E coli as a cloning vector is the fact that E. coli does not produce human toxins a.true b.false

 

b

 

29.     Which will generally proliferate most rapidly? a.bacterium b.mammalian cell c.bacteriophage d.mammalian virus e.yeast

 

C

 

 

30.     Enzymes exist within E. coli that will accomplish reverse translation. a.true b.false

 

b

 

 

31.     In a high concentration of tryptophan, the ribosome will move through the attenuator a.rapidly b.slowly

 

a

 

32.     When presented with both sugars, E. coli will use _____first. a. glucose b. lactose

 

a

 

33.     Which encodes the toxin produced during lysogenic conversion? a.bacterium a.mammalian cell c.yeast d.virus e.none of these

 

d

 

34.     Which contains the “anticodon”? a.DNA b.mRNA c.ribosome d.rRNA e.none of these

 

e

 

35.     ______ often contains a capsule a.E. coli b.S. aureus c.Pseudomonas d.Azotobacter e.none of these

 

d

 

36.     When viewing under “high” power, the object is magnified a total of X. a.50 b.100 c.400 d.1000 e.none of these

 

C

 

37.     The compound Xgal is used to detect a.the presence of a virus b.an antibody c.a radioisotope d.a colony able to synthesize tryptophan e.a colony’s able to use lactose

 

e

 

38.     “Finding the right clone” involves a.use of antibodies b.autoradiography c.colony hybridization d.visual inspection e.could be any of these

 

e

 

39.     Give causative agents for:

Meningitis

Plague

Pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Rheumatic fever

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

 

C.menin;Y.pestis;C.dificile;Strep.pyogenes;R.rickettsii

 

 

40.     Give causative agents for:

Diphtheria

Epiglottitis

Gonorrhea

His toplasmos is

Impetigo

 

C.diph,H.infl,N.gon,H.cap,S.pyo or S.aureus

 

41.     RNA can hybridize with single-stranded DNA. Recognition also occurs between specific sequences in nucleic acids and certain proteins. a.true b.false

 

a

 

42.     The best way to work out the sequence of a long stretch of DNA is a.using hybridization b.starting at one end and progressing to the other c.using a single restriction endonuclease to create pieces that can be sequenced and put in order d.using more than one restriction endonuclease to create overlapping pieces e.looking at DNA binding proteins

 

d

 

43.     Rolling circle replication can be used by a.eucaryotes b.bacterial conjugation c.bacterial viruses d.all of these e.two of these

 

e

 

44.     In a nucleosome, DNA is wound around a.histones b.mRNA c.tRNA d.rRNA e. ribosomes

 

a

 

45.   ______have extracellular forms a.plasmids b.mitochondria c.chloroplasts d.viruses e.two of these

 

d

 

46.  Rifamycins inhibit a.ribosomes b.restriction endonucleases c.cell wall synthesis d.RNA polymerase e.none of these

 

d

 

47.   Ribozymes most often a.synthesize RNA b.catalyse catabolic reactions c.catalyse anabolic reactions d.transcribe DNA e.splice RNA

 

e

 

48.     A start codon followed by a long series of bases before a stop codon represents a(n) a.plasmid b.intron c.consensus sequence d.open reading frame e.none of these

 

d

 

49.     Most overlapping genes occur in a.plasmids b.bacteria c.viruses d.eucaryotes e.none of these are more often involved with overlapping genes

 

C

 

50.     When glucose is present in an E.coli cell, the concentration of cAMP is low and binding of RNA polymerase to the lac promoter does not occur very efficiently. a.true b.false

 

a

 

51.     Some viral genomes contain both DNA and RNA. a.true b.false

 

b

 

52.     Some cancers are induced by viral infections. a.true b.false

 

a

 

53.     Virus receptors a.are designed to resist viral attachment b.are transport proteins c.are involved in motility d.are involved in ATP generation e.carry out normal cellular functions

 

e

 

54.     A viral genome integrated into the host genome is a(n) a.virion b.temperon c.prion d.prophage e.none of these

 

d

 

55.     In the bacteriophage lambda, transcription of cro tends to result in a.lysogeny b.the lytic cycle

b

 

56.   Formation of a duplex nucleic acid molecule with strands derived from different sources by complementary base pairing is a.autoradiography b.ligation c.transcription d.hybridization e.Southern Blotting

 

d

 

57.     An enzyme which recognizes and makes double-stranded breaks at specific DNA sequences is a(n) a.ribozyme b.topoisornerase c.reverse transcriptase d.DNA ligase e.restriction enzyme

 

e

 

58.     In eucaryotes, translation occurs in the a.nucleus b.cytoplasm c.sex pilus d.both nucleus and cytoplasm e.cell membrane

 

b

 

59.     The DNA in E. coli would be about 1,000 times longer if not for a.histone proteins b.ribosomes c.the endoplasmic reticulum d.the nuclear membrane e.supercoiling

 

e

 

60.     If the DNA of an organism has a high G+C content, its melting temperature will tend to be a.high b.low

 

a

 

61.     In agarose gel electrophoresis, a longer molecule will generally move more rapidly through the gel than will a shorter molecule a.true b.false

 

b

 

62.     In the ________ technique for DNA sequencing, chemicals are used to selectively break the DNA at each of the four nucleotide bases. a.Southern b.Northern c.Sanger d.Maxam—Gilbert e.none of these

 

d

 

63.   “Leading” and “lagging” strands are formed during a.RNA processing b.protein synthesis c.bacteriophage attachment d.bacterial mating e.DNA replication

 

e

 

64.     A(n) _____ is involved in RNA processing. a.ribosome b.histone c. spliceosome d.repressor e.DNA ligase

 

C